CSTE Mock Test -

CSTE Mock Test - Part I - Questions Along with Answers

Note:

• This material is for Evaluators reference only.

• Caters to answers of “CSTE Mock Test - Part I” paper.

1. A branch is (Ans: d)

a. An unconditional transfer of control from any statement to any other statement in the

component except the next statement

b. A conditional transfer of control from any statement to any other statement in a

component

c. When a component has more than one entry point, a transfer of control to any entry point

of the component

d. All of the above

e. None of the above

2 A metric is: (Ans: c)

a. A mathematical number that shows a relationship between two variables.

b. Metrics is quantitative measure of the degree to which a system /component or process

possesses a given attribute.

c. Both (a) and (c)

d. None of the above.

3 Data collected during testing should include: (Ans: d)

a. Test Factors.

b. Functions/subroutines

c. Platforms

d. All of the above

e. None of the above

4 Which of the following does not represents ways to define and measure test

coverage?(Ans:b)

a. Statement coverage

b. Point to point coverage

c. Branch coverage.

d. Basic path coverage.

5 For building a test plan following tasks are required.

Choose the correct sequence.(Ans: c)

a. Understand Project Risks, Form Test Team, Build Test Plan

b. Build Test Plan, Form Test Team, Understand Project Risks.

c. Form Test Team, Understand Project Risks, Build Test Plan

d. None of the above represents the tasks involved in building test plan

6 Choose the correct from those given below. (Ans: d)

a. Compliance Testing – Business rules.

b. Black Box Testing – Path Coverage.

c. Regression Testing – End users.

d. File Integrity – Control Totals

e. None of the above.

7 The best place to log ‘incidents’ is which of the following: (Ans: d)

a. Test script

b. Test log

c. User report

d. Defect Tracking system

8 To know with adequate confidence, “when is testing over”, which of the following is the best

approach? (Ans: b)

a. Declare that it is over when Time is out.

b. Use test appropriate Metrics

c. Declare that it is over when budget is consumed

d. Let the management decide that

9 Which of the following is not a component of “software fit” for acceptance? (Ans: d)

a. Data

b. Structure and People

c. Rules

d. Models

10 Which of the following statements are not correct.(Ans: d)

a. Structural testing evaluates all aspects of the structure to very that the structures is sound

b. Functional testing technique help ensure that the requirement/specifications are properly

satisfied by the software system

c. Functional testing not concerned with how processing occurs, but with the results of

process.

d. Functional testing techniques help to establish the roles and responsibilities of users

during acceptance testing.

11 which of the following is not one of the technique to find defects.(Ans: c)

a. Operational Techniques

b. Dynamics Techniques

c. Functional Techniques

d. Static Techniques

12 The concept of defensive code involves: (Ans: c)

a. Adding a syntax checker in the middle of the code

b. Adding Throw() and Catch()

c. Adding code to a program so that two part of the program must fail before a major

problem can occur

d. None of the above

13 Quality Assurance methods are usually considered (Ans: b)

a. Detective

b. Preventive

c. Corrective

d. Protective

14 Who has the primary responsibility of setting the quality culture in the organization (Ans: c)

a. The Training Dept.

b. The Quality Dept.

c. Senior Management

d. None

15 In statistics, the mean and median are called (Ans: e)

a. SPC

b. Variance

c. Standard deviation

d. Control Chart Values.

e. Measure of Central tendency

16 Quality principle dictate that the strategic quality plan should (Ans: a)

a. Be incorporated by the quality assurance function

b. Be written for quality assurance function

c. Identify individual quality programs

d. Define the size of the quality assurance department.

17 Pareto analysis will tell us (Ans: a)

a. Which problems occur most often

b. Why problem occur

c. Relative value of walkthrough and inspections

d. All of the above

18 Total quality management is a common term applied to a quality management system. Total

quality management is (Ans: e)

a. A process to produce zero defects

b. A defect identification strategy

c. Another way of expressing statistical process control

d. A strategy built around control charts

e. A management philosophy

19 Quality Function Deployment (Ans: d)

a. helps an organization to decide how the Quality function is deployed

b. is testing of previously verified program of application

c. is another approach to implementing balance score card method

d. is a systematic method to translate customer wants or needs into product or service

20 Which of the following are categories of acceptance requirement from user’s point of view

(Ans: e)

a. Overall software quality requirements

b. Functionality requirements

c. Performance requirements

d. Interface quality requirements

e. All the above

f. None are

21 Risk is defined as (Ans : a)

a. Frequency * Occurrence

b. Occurrence * Risk Factor

c. Risk Factor * Risk Response Number

d. Probability * Influence

22 Key elements of a defect management process are: (Ans: d)

a. Defect Prevention

b. Defect discovery/defect naming

c. Defect resolution

d. All of the above

23 which of the following does not represent the general of defect management philosophy

(Ans: a)

a. All of the below are the general principles

b. The primary goal is to prevent defects

c. Defect management process should be risk driven

d. Capture and analysis of the defect information should be automated

e. Defect information should be used towards process improvement.

24 ‘Requirement’ is a formal statement of (Ans: d)

a. An attribute to be possessed by the product/function to be performed by the product

b. The performance standard for the attribute or a function

c. The measuring process to be used in verifying that the standard has been met

d. All the above

25 Dynamic assertion is(Ans: c)

a. All the below

b. a way of empowering people in the organization

c. the analysis performed by executing the program code

d. a powerful way of expressing yourself to make your presence felt

26 Condition coverage is(Ans: e)

a. A black box testing technique

b. The property of logical coherence among constituent modules of a system

c. Money spent on quality activity to cover the entire testing budget

d. The number of decision statements covered in cyclomatic complexity analysis

e. None of the above

27 A Test Log (Ans: e)

a. is a worksheet/spreadsheet to record test activities

b. helps to record incidents into the defect tracking system

c. is responsible for conducting the test readiness review

d. should contain the procedure environment and tools for test execution

e. only(a) and (b) above

28 Which of the following is the correct sequence to test execution? (Ans: c)

a. Set up Test environment, Identify test cases and test cycles, Review test results, Assign

test scripts

b. Identify test cases and test cycles, Assign test scripts, Set up Test environment, Review

test results

c. Set up Test environment, Identify test cases and test cycles, Assign test scripts, Review

test results

d. Any of the above is a right sequence

29 Which of the following does not represent major concerns in the mind of testers during test

execution step? (Ans: d)

a. Software not in a testable mode

b. Inadequate time/resources

c. Significant problem will not be uncovered during testing

d. Developer will not appreciate testing

e. None of the above

30 Which of the following is/are factors used by Test Manager to determine whether the

application is ready for production(Ans: e)

a. MTBF

b. Failure or % coverage achieve by the executed test

c. Severity level-wise number of open defects

d. Risk associated with moving the application into production

e. All of the above

31 During the recording of test results, deviations must be document. Which of the following

attributes should be documented? (Ans: a)

a. All of the following

b. Activities involved

c. Users/Customer served

d. Deficiencies noted

e. Procedure used to perform work

32 The ‘cause’ is the underlying reason for the ‘condition’. The determination of the cause

requires a scientific approach. Which of the following represents the correct sequences?

(Ans: a)

1 Define the problem

2 Identify workflow

3 Identify procedures

4 Identify people involved

5 Recreate the circumstances

a 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

b 5, 1, 3, 2, 4

c 1, 5, 4, 3, 2

d 3, 5, 2, 4 ,1

33 What technique is most effective in encouraging participation of attendees at meetings?

(Ans: c)

a. Having the moderator play the devil’s advocate

b. Tell people that participation will be one of the appraisal factors

c. Role playing and requesting suggestions

d. Requiring participation

34 Risk management involves identifying risk and ___________ (Ans: d)

a. Eliminating risks

b. Avoiding risks

c. Risk analysis

d. Developing strategies to address risk

35 How could root cause analysis be applied to software? (Ans: a)

a. It can help identify error-prone parts of the process

b. It cannot be applied; there is no normal variation in software

c. It cannot be used to identify similar types of failures

d. It cannot be applied; software failure expose the root cause directly

36 One of the primary objective of process control is to: (Ans:d)

a. Increase competition

b. Improve metrics

c. Find root causes

d. Reduce Variability

37 Quality has been defined as: (Ans:e)

a. Meeting requirements

b. Customer satisfaction

c. Zero defects

d. All of the above

e. (a) and (b)

38 Three part of the PDCA cycles are act, plan and do. The fourth part of the PDCA cycle

is:(Ans:e)

a. Calibrate

b. Control

c. Coordinate

d. Create

e. Check

39 The primary purpose of quality control is to: (Ans:d)

a. Prevent defect from occurring

b. Assign quality responsibilities

c. Conducting testing

d. Find and correct defects

e. Writing work processes

40 The overall goal of software testing is to:(Ans:d)

a. Identify error not removed previously

b. Find who cause the error

c. Keep re-work costs as low as possible

d. None of the above

41 With the acquisition of a testing tool, the test engineer’s first priority is to: (Ans : c)

a. Decide how much to pay

b. Check with end-user first

c. Identify the goal for the tool usage

d. Make sure your management agrees to use the tool

42 The objectives of _________Control are to prevent, detect or correct or incorrect processing.

(Ans.A)

a. Transaction processing system

b. External

c. Internal

d. Environmental

43 Testing to determine that current changes have NOT adversely affected previous functionality

is called: (Ans : a)

a. Regression Testing

b. System Testing

c. Unit Testing

d. Acceptance Testing

e. Integration Testing

44 White box testing is primarily: (Ans : b)

a. Data driven

b. Logic driven

c. Bottom up driven

d. Top down driven

e. Defect driven

45 The most effective test approach is to begin testing when: (Ans : e)

a. After requirements

b. After external design

c. After internal design

d. After coding

e. A new project begins

46 Verification is an approach to testing that can occur during: (Ans : e)

a. Requirements

b. External design

c. Internal design

d. Coding

e. All of the above

47 Quality is often referred to as being free. This is because: (Ans : a)

a. The payback is greater than its cost over time

b. It’s difficult to quantify consumer satisfaction

c. There is a never ending goal to be achieved

d. Of continuous improvement

48 The characteristic of an effective meeting for testing related issues include:(Ans:e)

a. Develop an agenda

b. Define the role of the people attending the meeting

c. Encourages attendees to contribute fully

d. Clearly define the test objective

e. All the above

49 Which of the following is NOT part of a process workbench?(Ans:d)

a. Input

b. Do Procedure

c. Check Procedure

d. Defect Management

e. Output

50 Quality function deployment is most associated with:(Ans:d)

a. Total Quality Management

b. Problem Analysis

c. Regression Testing

d. Tracing requirements

e. Continuous Process Improvement